Exam syllabus confusion

answered 3 mins ago

Hello. I have cleared my Group 1 in IPCC scheme in Nov 2020. I converted to Inter in 2021 but couldn't clear Group 2. My registration expires in Aug 2025. I want to write exam in Sep 2024. What exams do I need to write now? Will I be auto converted? Under what syllabus and what exams do I need to write? Please help in clearing my confusion.

latest answer

Thank you sir. May I know is there still time for conversion? Is there a last date?

Teja Konakanchi

CA Inter

★ 985

2

5

Change in units in Part B

answered 1 hr ago

Whatever units we sold we can receive money for them only, so shouldn't we compare the profits, when the units sold is 2417 and received money for 2417 units? But Now we are comparing the profits, when units sold is 2,4000 but money is received for 2,417 units, It is fundamentally incorrect right sir

latest answer

We are computing two scenarios Scenario one fixed demand and a certain price gives certain profit Scenario two increased demand due to reduction in price and we are computing this profit We are comparing profits under both scenarios One last high price low volume and other has low price and high volume Also not have diff cost composition and forex exposure That is why u should see it as scenario.

B. Dinesh

CA Final

★ 3K+

1

5

Correlation

asked 3 hrs ago

Please help me to solve this question. The answer is C .

latest answer

No answers yet!!

Yashasvi Pareta

CA Foundation

★ 5

0

10

Rule 88B(3) interest calculation

asked 14 hrs ago

is it correct method to calculate interest calculation and reversal would done at 20/10/2022?

latest answer

No answers yet!!

sameer fahad

CA Final

★ 3K+

0

14

Change in registered office within same state shifting from jurisdiction of ROC to another

asked 16 hrs ago

As underlined in the picture, there is a contradiction between Section 12(6) of the Companies Act and Rule 28 of the Companies (Incorporation) Rules. I am confused about both. • Section 12(6): RD Order within 30 days and filing within 60 days. • Rule 28: RD Order within 15 days and filing within 30 days. Additionally, Rule 28 talks about an order approving the alteration of the MOA for the transfer of the registered office within the same state. However as per my knowledge, the MOA does not get altered for a change within the same state, as Clause II of the MOA contains only the name of the state. Please help me clarify the doubt.

latest answer

No answers yet!!

Monisha KM

CA Inter

★ 825

0

16

Answers in Book

answered 17 hrs ago

Hi sir, In the book the answer for part 1 is given as 5.555 lakhs

latest answer

Pls check latest book Shared from *1FIN by Indigolearn* CA FINAL AFM P 600 + https://1fin.link/resource/c631ed476165487eb04b4477ae3986e3/0e0d1cfb2629485cb4e74ddd0c1d26b9

B. Dinesh

CA Final

★ 3K+

1

21

PGBP

answered 19 hrs ago

Is donation to trade association a deductible expenditure under PGBP ?

latest answer

No it is not. If it is membership fee then Yes.

Mainak Chakraborty

CA Inter

★ 0

1

26

solving part 2 using an example

answered 1 day ago

Hi sir, in part 2 USD appreciates by 3%. if we take 100 as exchange rate in the beginning of the year and (100+(100*3%)) 103 as exchange rate at the end of the year. So we had 10,000 INR, we converted into 100 USD and invested in US, then we got 3 USD as Capital gain and 3 USD as interest. So the total return is 6 USD. So the return in INR is 6*103 = 618INR and our initial investment is 10,000 INR. so the return is 618/10000 =6.18%. But we got 9.18% in part 2. Can you please give me one example for part 2 sir

latest answer

Day 0 - USDINR = 100 i.e 100 INR per USD 10000 INR give us100 USD Invest 100USD in US Market Get 3% coupon and 3% gain on value of investment ie total Return in USD = USD 6 - Year end value of investment in USD = 106 Year End USDINR Rate = 103 Year END Convert USD to INR = closing Investment value 106 USD x exchange rate 103INR per USD = INR 10918 Return = 9.18%

B. Dinesh

CA Final

★ 3K+

1

17

Adding & Subtracting Interest rates

answered 1 day ago

Hi sir, In all the previous cases whenever we add interest rates we will multiply them{(1+5%)(1+6%)}, whenever we subtract them we will divide the rates{(1+5%)/(1+6%)}. But here when rupee is appreciating the return will reduce so we should subtract rates, so we should divide them. but why here instead of dividing we multiplied but with "-" sign i.e (1+6%)*(1-3%)?

latest answer

Here also we are doing the same If int rate is -3% We multiply by( 1 - 3% )and if int rate is 3% then we multiply by (1+3%) In foundation you would have learnt abt gross profit computation Think of 25% gross profit on sale price or on cost price If SP is 100 then gp is 25 if gp is 25 % of SP and CP is 75% of SP CP = SP (1-GP%) IF SP IS 100 then GP IS 20 if GP IS 25% of CP and CP IS 80 CP = SP / (1+GP%) Same logic like above applies in the current case also When does one multiply 100

B. Dinesh

CA Final

★ 3K+

1

17

Downside Risk

answered 1 day ago

What is mean by downside risk???

latest answer

Loss 😀

Surya Prakash

CA Final

★ 14K+

3

23