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Accountancy

answered on 01-May-24 15:45

What is the answer to 2 and 3? And why? And how?

latest answer

See this broo

sradha krishna sunil

sradha krishna sunil

CA Final

5K+

1

297

Inventory

Accountancy

answered on 01-May-24 20:25

What is the right ans to this ? And why?

latest answer

Option b

sradha krishna sunil

sradha krishna sunil

CA Final

5K+

1

306

Change in group

Exams

answered on 01-May-24 11:56

Hello , I wanted to know I filled exam form for both groups and I got exemption in paper 6 .. but now I only want to appear in group 2 DT and IDT... Do I have to sit in group 1 papers as well ?

latest answer

Yes

Mayank Saini

Mayank Saini

CFA L1

0

3

331

Loan Accounting

Financial Reporting

answered on 16-Mar-25 21:17

As in the attached picture, its a question which i framed, as the example you told in the video is framed to match the FV = PV of CF at market rate. I took a Interest rate of 10%, and the difference as mentioned in the Picture for 1.99L is amortised over the period. Right?

latest answer

Okay, sir. Thanks.

Visakh Sabu

Visakh Sabu

CA Final

20K+

6

203

Doubt in Illustration 17 of Impairment of Assets

Financial Reporting

answered on 02-May-24 09:25

Sir, in this question: 1) the third line mentions that "the machine does not generate independent cash flows". Can't this be taken to mean that the value-in-use is zero? 2) Suppose in scenario 2, it is only given that the management has an intention to replace the machine and sell it in the near future and nothing is mentioned about its value-in-use, will the answer differ from scenario 1? Is change in management's intention to replace & sell the machine enough to recognize Impairment Loss?

latest answer

1. No. It can generate cash with other assets in CGU. 2. If the management intends to not use the machine - it is covered by 105 and not 36.

Antara MuraliKrishnan

Antara MuraliKrishnan

CA Final

20K+

2

294

doubt regarding computation of cost and debt

Financial Management

answered on 03-May-24 17:22

sir,in this sum, while computing the cost of equity using the second method you have taken the cost of capital to be 15%(pre tax) and while computing the overall cost of capital you have taken the post tax cost of capital.why is that so???

latest answer

The computation of Ke in the 2nd method is based on formula, where Kd is pre-tax. Please go through the derivation of the formula in the video lecture to understand that better. Regarding the Overall cost, as per the fundamentals, it shall be computed based on post tax specific costs only.

aravind lalji

aravind lalji

CA Inter

0

2

274

Marginal Tax rate

Financial Management

answered on 06-May-24 12:59

Is there a difference between Marginal tax rate and Normal tax rate ?

latest answer

Ok sir , Thank you for your clarification

THARAKESH M

THARAKESH M

CA Inter

34K+

2

294

Chances of clearing exam

Others

answered on 03-May-24 11:52

I have done first 4 chapters of both sm & fm. What are my chances of clearing the exam as per you all??

latest answer

It depends on how you perform on that date, type of question asked. give your best shot.

Prasoon Tiwari

Prasoon Tiwari

CA Inter

4K+

2

345

AS-22 Accounting for taxes on income

Accountancy

answered on 01-May-24 07:49

The answer is DTL=1,50,000 right?

latest answer

Yea

Shaviri Reddy

Shaviri Reddy

CA Inter

1K+

3

270

Cash flow statement

Accountancy

answered on 03-May-24 11:12

In this question isn't the capital redemption reserve increasing from 2 lakhs in year 0 to 6 lakhs in year 1? While solving that opening and balance are not considered? and does the balance in that acc should be considered? does it make any impact while solving CF related question?

latest answer

It would be considered in transfer from retained earnings or general reserve.

Liz James

Liz James

CA Inter

2K+

1

191