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Doubt
AFM
answered on 13-Jul-26 20:27
Sir here can we do up to 8 years.and find p8 and calculate present value. [Video Time Stamp: 01:16]
latest answer
Yes that way also you will arrive at the same answer
pavan kumar
CA Final
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68
Derivatives- Futures and forwards
AFM
answered on 13-Jul-26 20:26
Sir in Qn 18th (b) part that is calculation of gain or loss if index goes to 10200 or 15600. in the solution to this part we have reduced loss on share amounting to Rs.3600 and also profit on futures Rs.4140 (Incase of 10200). But in qn 19th (iii) part we have not added or deducted any loss or gain on share. Why sir [Video Time Stamp: 33:28]
latest answer
Solutions to both the questions are presented differently based on the way the question is structured Q 18 asks us look at overall portfolio profit / loss - one cash position and other futures position. There is profit on one side and loss on the other and they both offset each other in both scenarios Q 19 we are asked to check for arbitrage opportunity. When MP of futures is not equivalent to theoretical price - arbitrage opportunity arises. In such an arbitrage transaction, we borrow money to buy spot and and at the same time short futures. In both scenarios of Q 19 part 3 we make a profit. - here also we are making profit on futures in one scenario and loss on futures in another scenario. These two profit and loss are offset by net vale of ( Sell spot index + repay loan) Dividend and interest repayment are common in both scenarios of Q 19 part 3.
AGALYA KANNAN
CA Final
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77
Doubt
AFM
answered on 13-Jul-26 15:33
Here they said capex is 34 and 38.but PPE has only an increase of 23.remaining amount is 15 which we don't whether it is for operating or investing. [Video Time Stamp: 07:33]
latest answer
You have to adjust for depreciation of 23 of current year Balance or is NFA increase in fixed assets is computed on GFA basis Explained it subsequently if I recollect
pavan kumar
CA Final
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69
Doubt
AFM
answered on 13-Jul-26 15:34
Here capex is also related to operating activities that it means the amount used for purchase or sale of operating assets.why are we reducing capex separately? [Video Time Stamp: 04:57]
latest answer
Capex is always treated as investing and never as operating
pavan kumar
CA Final
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63
selling exp
Costing
answered on 13-Jul-26 19:45
If instead of taking selling exp as a % of works cost we take it as a % on total sales (480000)wont it be more appropriate [Video Time Stamp: 19:42]
latest answer
It would be more appropriate to calculate selling expenses as a % of sales. However, if the manufacturing concern’s policy is to absorb selling expenses as a % of works cost, then we should follow the same.
Rithu V
CA Inter
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94
Doubt
AFM
answered on 12-Jul-26 13:59
Why are we considering 5 years, instead we can end after 3 years.
latest answer
We are considering 4 years data you can solve with 3 and get same solution 2014 is D0 so it is not considered in future projection
pavan kumar
CA Final
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85
Financial liabilities
Financial Reporting
answered on 13-Jul-26 12:57
Dear sir Please explain the financial liability example which is not financial liability and classify as equity.. Please provide Audio recording in explanation..
latest answer
Which part are you referring to? Fixed to Fixed test is explained. Dont go too deep in this concept for exams.
Vinod Kumawat
CA Final
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103
sa 501
Auditing
answered on 20-Jul-26 13:21
The auditor is unable to attent the management physical inventory counting and also auditor can not able perform alternative audit procedurs to obtain audit evidence regarding inventory but auditor willing to give unmodified opinion cause his belive that management has made propery physical counting and recorede apprpriatly. can audiitor give an an unmodified opinion
latest answer
The language is incorrect. Items are not pervasive. Misstatement are. So misstatement must be material and pervasive to give relevant opinion
Pavan kumar k Pavan
CA Inter
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131
Illustration # 83 - Cancellation on due date
AFM
answered on 12-Jul-26 09:30
Sir, I have one doubt. In this question, why has the customer exchange margin been deducted? Could you please explain the logic behind applying the exchange margin here. [Video Time Stamp: 11:18]
latest answer
Rule is that on all last cancellation there is a margin that is collected by the bank from the customer.
Vaikundaraja A
CA Final
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104
Marginal costing
Costing
answered on 13-Jul-26 19:53
Can anyone Explain Marginal costing vs Absorption costing in detail
latest answer
Under Marginal Costing , Costs are classified based on nature/behaviour where as under Absorption Costing , Costs are classified based on functions. Closing Stock is valued on Variable Cost basis under marginal Costing , under Absorption costing it is valued on Total Cost basis.
Nagaraju Konerolu
CA Inter
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127