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Decision to Sell Shares Based on Intrinsic Value
AFM
answered on 13-Jun-25 11:22
Sir according to this calculation, the intrinsic value of the shares is lower than the current market price, so it is advised to sell the securities now. However, suppose the investor follows this advice and sells all his shares now or next year, but then the market price unexpectedly rises to ₹75 later on. In that case, if he wants to buy back the shares, he will have to pay a much higher price than what he sold them for. So, he lost his profit too . Ignoring the dividend and all other aspects. So this conclusion pertains to the year which we have calculated only.?
latest answer
Okay Sir. Thank you.
K Vamshi
CA Final
★ 14K+
2
185
Om and sm
Exams
answered on 13-Jun-25 09:47
Can any one tell me the answer for cma inter june 15 theroy answer
latest answer
pls hsare the question.
sakthi kumaresan
CMA Inter
★ 0
1
204
Expected return under sharpe model = Alfa+Beta*market return+unexplained error
AFM
answered on 13-Jun-25 11:32
Sir, I understand that Beta × Market Return gives the expected return for a specific security. Then why do we add Alpha again? [Video Time Stamp: 12:22]
latest answer
Yes exactly
Manikyam
CA Final
★ 0
3
165
Liability for necessaries
Corporate & Other Laws
answered on 14-Jun-25 09:15
For example I have provided all basic necessities of ₹800000 to a minor(Shyam) till attaining age of majority 18 yrs Minor has a property of ₹1000000 which was given by his father as a birthday gift but due to any condition the father of minor died Before death of minors father There was an agreement between the minor father(Raghav) and uncle(Raghu) of the minor stating that the property is given to Raghu till the time where Shyam has not attained the majority when Shyam attains the majority the property has to be transferred from Raghu to Shyam on the same date. Shyam is beneficiary to contract. Can I be able to be reimbursed in situation 1 Property is transferred 2 Property not transferred but that agreement is with Shyam and Shyam wants that I should be compensated for those expenses which I have made on him
latest answer
Raghu here is only assigned as thee caretaker of the property the ownership of property is not transfered to Raghu.
Gurukanta Singh
CA Foundation
★ 19K+
5
358
production sharing contract
Indirect Taxation
answered on 26-Jun-25 13:36
🔹 Assumptions: Total crude oil produced in a month = 1,00,000 barrels Total sale price per barrel = ₹5,000 So, total sale proceeds = 1,00,000 × ₹5,000 = ₹5,00,00,000 Recoverable costs incurred by contractor = ₹3,00,00,000 Balance = ₹2,00,00,000 → treated as Profit Petroleum Profit Petroleum sharing ratio: Contractor: 60% Government: 40% ✅ GST Treatment: Total Sale of ₹5 Cr is a taxable outward supply by the contractor. GST is levied on ₹5 Cr, not just on the contractor's profit share. Cost Petroleum (₹3 Cr): This is not excluded from taxable value. It’s an internal cost recovery, not a separate supply. Profit Petroleum (₹2 Cr): Also not a separate supply. The entire ₹5 Cr is already taxed. Sharing with Government is like a revenue split, not a transaction. Is this correct sir
latest answer
Right.
Vemula Mounika
CA Final
★ 2K+
1
193
All 4 scenarios violating the 20% rule
AFM
answered on 12-Jun-25 22:03
Company's maximum acceptable drop in NPV = 20% of Normal NPV: 20% of ₹11,28,120=₹2,25,624 So, minimum acceptable NPV (with risk): ₹11,28,120−₹2,25,624=₹9,02,496 In cases (a), (b), and (c), a 10% adverse change causes NPV to drop >20% → Not acceptable In case (d) (poor economy), NPV = −₹88,596 → Well beyond acceptable risk So with all 4 scenarios violating the 20% rule, the project is clearly rejected. What if only 2 out of 4 (say, two variables or scenarios) have NPV drop > 20%, while the other 2 are within 20% — can the project be accepted?
latest answer
Depends on which negative scenario the company is most worried abt
Shinisha Rose R
CA Final
★ 5K+
1
146
Financial Instruments
Financial Reporting
answered on 12-Jun-25 14:26
Sir , in financial instruments do we have to focus on theory part. Also so many questions have been removed from previous syllabus. Is it to be learned.?
latest answer
You need to understand and not attempt to remember theory some questions have been moved to Practice Question bank. If you are able to solve past exam papers since 2018, it is more than sufficient.
R M
ACCA Professional
★ 4K+
1
153
Consideration of Beta as 1
AFM
answered on 12-Jun-25 23:13
Sir, Could you explain why the Beta value is taken as 1 for Market and 0 for Treasury Bill.?
latest answer
Thank you Sir.
K Vamshi
CA Final
★ 14K+
2
179
Quarter
Indirect Taxation
answered on 17-Jun-25 18:02
Sir, i wanted clarification in regrds of number of qquarters, we count number of quarters from which date and end on which date
latest answer
We have to see the date. Quarter or part thereof is considered. Quarter means a period of 3 months ending with June, Sept, Dec and March.
Hrishikesh Pradhan
CA Final
★ 18K+
1
195
ICAI study material doubt
Costing
answered on 18-Jun-25 16:45
A company has a normal capacity of 120 machines, working 8 hours per day of 25 days in a month. The fixed overheads are budgeted at ` 1,44,000 per month. The standard time required to manufacture one unit of product is 4 hours. In April 2021, the company worked 24 days of 840 machine hours per day and produced 5,305 units of output. The actual fixed overheads were ` 1,42,000. COMPUTE the following Fixed Overhead variance: 2. Capacity variance Sir, the answer given by ICAI for capacity variance is 17280 but isn’t the correct answer 23040 (A)
latest answer
in your working you have computed calendar variance based on days and not based on hours. Calendar variance = 120*8*6 = 5760 17280 + 5760 =. 23040 When we compute calendar variance, the capacity variance is revised. Revised Capacity Variance = (Actual hours – Revised budgeted hours) × Std. fixed rate per hour
Dova Shaji
CA Inter
★ 520
5
399