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Classification between indas 16 vs indas 40
Financial Reporting
answered on 01-Sep-25 09:56
Hello Sir , Hotel company has given restaurant on operating lease. assuming the restaurant can be sold or finance lease the restaurant building separately . but the payment terms of operating lease such that it depends on the no of orders or hotel occupancy (the restaurant exclusively provides services to the hotel only) . based on the payment terms the cash flow is not independent of business performance (independent cashflow is necessary for classifying it as investment property ) but the restaurant building can be sold or finances lease independently . how will be this classified ? [Video Time Stamp: 16:05]
latest answer
You would see what is the intention of company primarily. For any property, there is always a possibility to sell or lease out. So classification should be based on what the management wants to do with the asset.
Akhil Reddy
CA Final
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1
122
Query
Financial Reporting
answered on 25-Aug-25 06:36
Sir, on 31/5 Why we are considering that we will have to pay 78 and accordingly doing the accounting as we entered into a future that we will buy $1000 @80 . [Video Time Stamp: 18:25]
latest answer
Here we are separating forward contract and purchase contract. Ultimately the gain loss on forward will get adjusted against the asset. The idea is to recognise PL on derivative leg.
K Vamshi
CA Final
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111
Binomial pricing model
CFA
answered on 24-Aug-25 22:47
We have 1 period and 2 period binomial model after doing lot of calculation we arrive at the PV of the payoff of the option and that is essentially the price of the option is that right?? But in CFA L1 we studied the price of the option as the sum of IV and TVM why do we use this binomial model when the price can be found by IV+tvm? Pls explain
latest answer
Thank you sir
Dhakshana Dhakshana
CFA L2
★ 18K+
2
89
Sale is not notified by the seller
Corporate & Other Laws
answered on 25-Aug-25 15:00
A- seller B- auctioneer C- Brother of A D-Highest bidder D bids highest bid of 60cr If D comes to know the brother of A which is C was present and C was also did second highest bid. Can D treat contract as fraudulent C is not appointed by A [Video Time Stamp: 00:00]
latest answer
D can treat the contract as fraudulent only if it is proved that C was acting for A. If C was genuinely bidding for himself (even if he is A’s brother), then the contract stands valid
Gurukanta Singh
CA Foundation
★ 19K+
1
122
Ill. 10
Financial Reporting
answered on 25-Aug-25 14:28
Sir, what do they mean by over 3 years? Does that mean at the end of Third year or 10% in each years [Video Time Stamp: 11:06]
latest answer
The question is not drafted properly by ICAI. Generally over three years means cumulatively at the end of third year.
Hariharan Ravichandran
CA Final
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128
2 nd basic condition is not applied?
Direct Taxation
answered on 28-Aug-25 13:53
Hello sir , Why 2nd basic condition is not applied for Srinath can you explain. [Video Time Stamp: 02:43]
latest answer
If an Indian Citizen is coming to India for a visit, then second basic condition is not applicable.
Anil Kumar.H
CA Inter
★ 2K+
1
149
Put call parity formula
CFA
answered on 24-Aug-25 17:54
S+p = c+pv(X) Sometimes we short the call or short the put depending upon what we need to find out But shorting call/put means what? Is it selling or writing call/put options??and also shorting the bond which pays X(exercise price) at expire also explain
latest answer
Yes
Dhakshana Dhakshana
CFA L2
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5
112
round off
AFM
answered on 24-Aug-25 13:24
why we are rounding off to 66.5565 to 66.5575 [Video Time Stamp: 00:06]
latest answer
Rounding
Bala Manoj Kumar.S
CA Final
★ 90
1
110
rounding off
AFM
answered on 24-Aug-25 13:27
why we are rounding off to 66.5575 instead of keeping in 66.5565 [Video Time Stamp: 54:12]
latest answer
okay sir
Bala Manoj Kumar.S
CA Final
★ 90
2
121
On customer asks for execution
AFM
answered on 24-Aug-25 13:53
as we are entering optional deliverable fwd contract we buy from inter bank and we hold dollar so we can sell the same dollar on execution so the canellation loss will be diff of 65.99 and 66.84 but why we are selling to inter bank again and then we wont hold any dollars so how we can sell to customer at 65.99 instead of buy at spot 65.99 and sell customer 65.99
latest answer
oh ok, thank you sir
Bala Manoj Kumar.S
CA Final
★ 90
2
109