Forums
Premia
AFM
answered on 17-Apr-26 13:39
Applicable CBBBC on customer (company) because we are purchaser / seller of options.. Premia = CBBC ON COMPANY [Video Time Stamp: 00:01]
latest answer
yes
Vinod Kumawat
CA Final
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37
Doubt
AFM
answered on 17-Apr-26 15:51
Why is there a change in the long-term loan? Why is there no change in the short-term loan? Actually, both have to increase loan?
latest answer
St loans
pavan kumar
CA Final
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45
AUM
AFM
answered on 16-Apr-26 15:04
Sir, If amount pooled is 1Cr and amount invested is 0.9Cr which have market value of Rs. 1.2 Cr. Whether asset under management will be Rs. 1.2Cr or Rs. 1.3Cr including idle cash? [Video Time Stamp: 06:56]
latest answer
1.3 including idle cash
SANJITHA
CA Final
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42
Nearest whole number in NOC
AFM
answered on 16-Apr-26 14:10
37.51 we consider 37 because no need to extra hedge, but if they not mention then should we do round off also same or go with decimal ( in terms of numbers of contract.?) [Video Time Stamp: 00:02]
latest answer
Usually they will mention. If they do not then solve under both alternatives round up and round down.
Vinod Kumawat
CA Final
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38
doubt
AFM
answered on 16-Apr-26 12:58
Fixed assets value will not be increased by ratio of sales. why we are computing fixed assets increase is same % as sales. [Video Time Stamp: 10:54]
latest answer
It will increase Both current assets and fixed assets That is the whole formula of EFR Refer page 1.12 of icai sm
pavan kumar
CA Final
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33
Weights
AFM
answered on 16-Apr-26 09:43
Sir, here the weights are on the initial investment value. But we consider based on closing Marker value right? Are we considering initial investing value because we are on 01/04/2020, where closing price is expected based on probability? [Video Time Stamp: 00:01]
latest answer
No. Because return on computed on opening invested value. Say there are two stocks in portfolio and one of which has generated 10% retun on 100 Rupees of original investment and the second one gave 20% return on 200 rupees we will arrive at 10% (1/3) + 20% ( 2/3) = 16.67% ( same as (10+40)/ (100+200) = 50/300 = 16.67% )not on closing value
SANJITHA
CA Final
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37
Illustration 6
AFM
answered on 16-Apr-26 07:06
Sir, could you please explain how face value is computed? Also why we used that equation in this question ? [Video Time Stamp: 02:45]
latest answer
Yield
Mhd Mmp
CA Final
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26
Doubt
AFM
answered on 15-Apr-26 15:07
We took classes for Jan-27. Whether these classes extend to May, as there is no Jan attempt.
latest answer
Yes. We will open the extension window at a reasonable pricing and notify.
pavan kumar
CA Final
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30
Coupon rate
AFM
answered on 15-Apr-26 13:58
Sir, since the FV and issue price is same and redeemed at par, the coupon rate equals the yield right. In that case, will it be correct to conclude coupon rate as 8 % as same as YTM? [Video Time Stamp: 09:20]
latest answer
Here we are talking about a MF that is raising money . Yield of the fund is not same as the yield of the bond in which it invests
SANJITHA
CA Final
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1
29
Doubt
AFM
answered on 15-Apr-26 14:06
As per formula, Beta =change in value of stock/change in value of Index. But for total number of future contracts=Portfolio value* Beta of the portfolio . Explain. [Video Time Stamp: 05:48]
latest answer
Portfolio beta
pavan kumar
CA Final
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35