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Doubt
AFM
answered on 06-Aug-26 19:51
Here they said after 2008 beta is equal to 1.1 but for computing value at end of 2008 we are taking beta as 1.1.how this will be correct? For P0 at the end of 2008 D1 is D2009 but for ke we have to take ke 0f 2008 and g is upto 2008. [Video Time Stamp: 09:26]
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Clarified Thank you sir
pavan kumar
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Doubt
AFM
answered on 06-Aug-26 15:07
Sir here the dividend is for current year which is D1 not D0 as the same we did in security valuation of shares? [Video Time Stamp: 11:27]
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No worries
pavan kumar
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Part iii and iv
AFM
answered on 05-Aug-26 12:47
If they ask (before coupon payment on 31st March,) Will the price will increase by coupon for the period 31st March 2013? i.e iii - from 118.18 to 128.89 iv - from 108.11 to 113.11
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Thanks sir for the clarification
BALAJI G
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Doubt
AFM
answered on 05-Aug-26 13:09
Why are we not considering the return on risk free securities? [Video Time Stamp: 15:02]
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Thank you sir
pavan kumar
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Buy back of debenture
AFM
answered on 04-Aug-26 08:58
Why is it better to hold debenture? Why are we considering the face value of debenture as 6? [Video Time Stamp: 13:09]
latest answer
Because questions specifically says no that including the bonus debenture of 6 And when bonus debentures are allotted, there will be a lot in it face. Well, you know, why will they be allotted at premium or discount?
pavan kumar
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Doubt
AFM
answered on 04-Aug-26 08:35
Here can we take excepted return/risk and choose the lower one [Video Time Stamp: 11:38]
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No u have choose the portfolio which has best combination of risk + return
pavan kumar
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Doubt
AFM
answered on 04-Aug-26 08:36
Why do we consider 6 as the face value of debenture? Why is it better to hold debenture?
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Is doubt in the same question?
pavan kumar
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Doubt
AFM
answered on 03-Aug-26 16:19
Why did we take beta as 1 here [Video Time Stamp: 04:33]
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Market beta is 1
pavan kumar
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Dps for year 2009
AFM
answered on 01-Aug-26 19:40
In this question, they have said after year 2008, the EPS is expected to drop to a stable rate of 6% and the pay-out ration is expected to increase to 65% of earnings, so if Payout ratio is 65%, then DPS will be 35% right, so we have to multiply 4.4774 of EPS of year 2009 with 35%, to get DPS value, but why is it multiplied with 65% which is payout ration to arive at DPS of year 2009 [Video Time Stamp: 05:06]
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Payout means what is paid out as dividend Retention is what is retained
Lavanya Ravi
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Bhramastra Batch
AFM
answered on 31-Jul-26 17:07
Sir where do we find the soft copy of these questions being discussed in this batch? [Video Time Stamp: 00:21]
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In same chapter on website below or above video files as pdf
Tanishka Kakar
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