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Value of risk free security
AFM
answered on 01-Aug-25 11:00
Sir, to calculate the value of risk free security to be acquired or divested ,there is difference in book answer and suggested answer ,can you please explain sir.
latest answer
Clear sir ! Thank you so much
Sathya k
CA Final
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5
227
Nostro
AFM
answered on 01-Aug-25 11:28
Sir I couldn't get the 6 and 7 answer wright
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Fine sir
Sathya k
CA Final
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6
344
Risk Free Investment
AFM
answered on 01-Aug-25 06:20
Can we calculate the same we did in Illustration.32 Sir. 0.8 = (120000*1.1084 +R*0) / 120000+R [Video Time Stamp: 09:03]
latest answer
Yes got the same answer
Banu Priya
CA Final
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224
Currency futures
AFM
answered on 01-Aug-25 19:48
Sir in currency futures why we are dividing 755.2 by exchange rate when 755.2 is in inr itself as we have multiplied by 472000 which is in inr [Video Time Stamp: 00:00]
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Thanks a lot sir
Akshat Sharma
CA Final
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2
249
(iii) gain from Acq
AFM
answered on 31-Jul-25 21:48
first we solved long ltd based on EPS & Market price then we did for Tall Ltd computed the M CAP is that right sir ? also we solved another method last part of video
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Tq sir
Hariharan S
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235
Price in Study Material
AFM
answered on 01-Aug-25 14:24
Sir, closing price of Y Ltd is given as 250 with probability 0.2 in Study Material. [Video Time Stamp: 16:54]
latest answer
Updated the video. Thanks for highlighting the same
Banu Priya
CA Final
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207
npv included in terp
AFM
answered on 31-Jul-25 06:52
sir can you explain why npv is icluded in theoritical ex right price of rights.
latest answer
thank you sir
KIRAN BANKAPALLI
CA Final
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203
Doubt
AFM
answered on 29-Jul-25 09:46
Sir why haven't we considered present value of repayment of loan [video Time Stamp: 00:05]
latest answer
Thank you sir..clear
Sathya k
CA Final
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2
228
Square root of amount in lakhs and actual amounts for SD and Variance
AFM
answered on 28-Jul-25 10:31
When 85.4 is Variance Rs. in lakhs and we take Sq. Rt. we get 9.2412 as SD. However, if actual amount is considered Rs. 85,40,000 Sq. rt. the SD is 2922.328 This is because of the consideration in Lakhs and actuals. Which answer should be followed while Practicing? [Video Time Stamp: 15:54]
latest answer
Good question. Answer is 9.24 lacs which is correct. Even if you convert all amounts in to lakhs you will get same answer When you multiply pi ( x-xmean ) power 2 You are doing square of lakhs. You get lakh square So variance is in lakh square you have to take square root of that I am attaching a spreadsheet and screenshot- pls go through it and even if you take all amounts in absolute values you get same answer
Benwin Thattil
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FUTURES
AFM
answered on 01-Aug-25 14:52
hi sir what are the difference between these equations and when it use as per the qstn ?
latest answer
ok
Muhammed Mubaris
CA Final
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