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Premia Calculation
AFM
answered on 08-Nov-25 13:37
Sir, I didnt understand that premia payment concept in this illustration, why the PV calculation, the assumption made on the payment of premia. [Video Time Stamp: 04:34]
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Premia
Abhinav K A
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NOTES
AFM
answered on 07-Nov-25 05:23
WHERE DO I GET THE CONCEPT NOTES [Video Time Stamp: 01:00]
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First chapter introduction there is something called LDR
Gopi cd
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AFM
answered on 06-Nov-25 09:18
Where can i get the pdf which is used to explain topics in the revision video sir ? [Video Time Stamp: 34:04]
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Shared from *1FIN by Indigolearn* AFM https://1fin.link/resource/e558d2bbafb64478bb9ca83548fd9cbe
Akshaya Vk
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Cost of Capital
AFM
answered on 14-Jul-26 14:10
Sir even though calculating Ke by 1/PE Ratio is rationally wrong. Cant we do it in this problem 1/7.5 =13.3%? [Video Time Stamp: 03:06]
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Had the same doubt sir 😅,while solving I got 13.33% only 😄! thought of checking first in the doubts if not there then putting in the forums 😅😅! Thank you for the clarification sir
Shreyas Nayak
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Capital Gearing Ratio
AFM
answered on 04-Nov-25 13:39
Sir, here in this formula, shouldn't we consider the reserves amount to be 32 Lakhs plus the 6.21 lakhs (as computed in the previous working note). Because retained earnings is also a part of the reserves right. Moreover if is this is considered the Numerator would be 104 Lakhs and Denominator would be 118.21 Lakhs (80+32+6.21). Then the CGR would be 0.879. Is this analogy correct or wrong? [Video Time Stamp: 14:12]
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Understood sir. Thank you.
Shreyas Nayak
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Illustration 37
AFM
answered on 04-Nov-25 10:48
Why the cost is taken same for 3 years . It can also be convert into present value know.... [Video Time Stamp: 01:37]
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Expenses have been taken as given and adjusted with salvage value -PV of that net amount has been computed If you are asking are amounts of Rs.3K of taxes and 30K, 35K & 43K maintenance - these amounts are given at current prices. We did compute these costs at NPV as explained above after adj for salvage value EAC has been computed only after that Check screenshot below:
Hemanth kumar Kapuluru
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Q 29 icai module
AFM
answered on 02-Nov-25 21:16
In this que they have not shown by how much the the share price has increased and also the ke has incresed. 1.To decide and compare shouldn't we give the difference that increase in ke by ___% and increase in share proce by ___% so % increase in share price is more . 2.if we give such answer what will be the increase in share price the new price of 36.33 should be compared with whatearlier 13.63(ideal ) or 25(MP)
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1. You are over thinking . Please do not answer what is not required. They have asked share price under both circumstances and give an opinion under each scenario. 2. In both cases comparison is with CMP 25 - they have asked what will do you with information A ( i.e buy or hold or sell) and what will you do if information changes to B ( Buy or hold or sell) Just answer that
Gauri Shete
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Benefit in bps to A
AFM
answered on 03-Nov-25 15:45
Sir in the second part MIBOR increased to 5.75% here we consider the benefit to A as 30bps . Because in the first part when the MIBOR is 5.25% the same savings to A 30bps only. How will it be the same .? Kindly Clarify Sir. [Video Time Stamp: 27:43]
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Okay Sir, Thank You.
K Vamshi
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Q16 portfolio icai module
AFM
answered on 02-Nov-25 15:02
In this que 16 They have first found return and then portfolio beta I have 1st found beta which is tallying with solution But then with CAPM i fouls the return which coming ro 16 ...is that i am finding required return and they have qsked actual return
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They also found out required return based on given beta only They computed Beta and then computed CAPM return which comes to 16.13 % They gave 2 solutions - pls have a look at both . answer is same under both .Just ensure you compute all numbers for more than 2 decimals
Gauri Shete
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exchange gain/loss
AFM
answered on 01-Nov-25 18:08
sir small doubt, in the above qn we are having a fixed amount 10 million and exchange it for other currencies through 3 currency markets and in the end it results in gain and loss if it is done in the opposite route, which is fine but why the gain and loss value differ even though the exchange rates are same in both the ways, per say if profit thorugh one way is 112969 means the loss through the other way should be also the same na but it is coming 111706 loss when it is done through the other way kinldy explain the logic for the variation sir [Video Time Stamp: 02:51]
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Yes obviously but gain and loss will not match paise to paise
Raghavan Mani
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