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AFM

answered on 14-Apr-26 15:11

In previous questions, we considered the interest rate per annum. In this problem, we are taking the interest rate per month for computing the COC. Explain [Video Time Stamp: 02:02]

latest answer

Question specifically says per month interest and prev one specifically say per annum interest

pavan kumar

pavan kumar

CA Final

★ 4K+

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116

if we assume that upfront fees include in forward rate but total amount of cost will same in both case.?

AFM

answered on 14-Apr-26 11:23

then we have to calculated cos of fund assuming premia = ( FV ) multiply by (1-rate) , 64*(1-0.02) = 62.72 hence premia = 64-62.72 = 1.28 per USD =1.28*60000= 76800 i.e cost will be here also . means premia = 2% of 64 ( whether included or not) only we will compare spot rate vs 62.72 for total gain /loss cost remain same in both case. [Video Time Stamp: 08:36]

latest answer

While your though process is right. ICAI awards marks only if you follow their logic refer page 86 solution to illustration 23 https://resource.cdn.icai.org/87851bos-aps2163-ch10.pdf

Vinod Kumawat

Vinod Kumawat

CA Final

★ 2K+

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199

Borrowing - RF Asset

AFM

answered on 14-Apr-26 11:18

Sir, Whether the amount of borrowing against the portfolio, Rs. 91,667 is invested in the market, does it form part of Rs. 12 Lakhs in the second case? [Video Time Stamp: 16:36]

latest answer

Stocks value 12 lacs Less borrowing 91667 net value of portfolio = 1108333

SANJITHA

CA Final

★ 1K+

1

177

Doubt

AFM

answered on 13-Apr-26 20:30

Here, the dividend is paid on face value, but we are taking the percentage of the dividend on the index. What is the reason? [Video Time Stamp: 16:36]

latest answer

Dividend when stated as paid as as percentage then we consider it on FV When stated as yield we take it as percentage of market value This is standard convention in the market

pavan kumar

pavan kumar

CA Final

★ 4K+

1

107

Doubt

AFM

answered on 13-Apr-26 20:35

1. In the above question, the lot size is not mentioned. It says 1 future contract is for the delivery of 50 times the index. 2. Why are we choosing the BSE index for the computation of future price instead of choosing the value of the portfolio, which we did in the previous question? [Video Time Stamp: 15:12]

latest answer

In previous question they asked us to find out value of stock futures Here they have asked us to hedge the portfolio and that hedging cannot happen by entering to portfolio futures by using stock index futures . Here we use index futures adjusting their quantity to ensure beta of portfolio is same as beta of futures

pavan kumar

pavan kumar

CA Final

★ 4K+

1

120

FOR CA FINAL AFM IMPORTANT QUESTIONS LIST - UNDER Derivative Analysis Under Options they have mentioned Question no. 38,39 but the p600+ have only questions up to 37 where does the question 38 and 39 come from?..

AFM

answered on 13-Apr-26 18:32

FOR CA FINAL AFM IMPORTANT QUESTIONS LIST - UNDER Derivative Analysis Under Options they have mentioned Question no. 38,39 but the p600+ have only questions up to 37 where does the question 38 and 39 come from?..

latest answer

Thank you 👍

Lingesh Elumalai

Lingesh Elumalai

CA Final

★ 300

3

118

Doubt

AFM

answered on 13-Apr-26 15:00

1. Can we sell some of our stocks at a time in the cash market? [Video Time Stamp: 19:24]

latest answer

Yes

pavan kumar

pavan kumar

CA Final

★ 4K+

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100

Doubt

AFM

answered on 13-Apr-26 12:17

1.What happens, If the theoretical price is higher than the future price in this example. 2.We are considering bullish every time. What happens if it is a bearish market.

latest answer

Those scenarios are also considered in subsequent examples. Of Theoretical price is higher then Buy Futures in market as they are cheaper than theoretical price Buy cheap sell costly

pavan kumar

pavan kumar

CA Final

★ 4K+

1

161

Margin

AFM

answered on 13-Apr-26 06:06

Sir, i understand when to add or deduct margin, but I can't understand where to use buying rate and selling rate. Can you explain [Video Time Stamp: 00:57]

latest answer

Yes

Nitin Raj

Nitin Raj

CA Final

★ 270

3

150

Q

AFM

answered on 12-Apr-26 18:22

Sir, the formula for co-efficient of variance is (S.D/ CF'S).Then in this q, why is NPV considered as the denominator? [Video Time Stamp: 05:09]

latest answer

Here cf refers to mean cash flow which is expected npv Actual formula is sd / mean In adv cap budgeting mean refers to mean cash flows

SANSKRITI BADRI 2111339

SANSKRITI BADRI 2111339

CA Final

★ 4K+

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108