Forums
REGARDING DIVIDEND
AFM
answered on 26-May-26 05:10
Sir, A small doubt, in the end of the video you have mentioned that if dividend is not paid to other party by 31-03-2020 then XYZ need not pay dividend to Mr.ABC. But even though later XYZ buy shares and give it back to the ABC later the dividend which is declared in this lending period will be forgone by ABC right then it should paid to ABC by XYZ only right ?? This is what i understood Correct me if Im wrong... Thank you [Video Time Stamp: 31:28]
latest answer
Case 1 xyz needs to pay dividend to abc Case 2 abc will get dividend from company so xyz need not reimburse
Lokesh Reddy
CA Final
★ 530
5
90
Future settlement price
AFM
answered on 23-May-26 11:18
Sir, whether the future is finally settled at the future settlement price of Rs. 110 or at the assumed price of future (settlement price*CF)? What will be the inflow to seller? [Video Time Stamp: 03:43]
latest answer
At assumed price - that is why it is calculated. There are more problems on settlement etc pls go through all problems and your doubts will get cleared. If not let me know
SANJITHA
CA Final
★ 1K+
1
55
Annual Return % Computation
AFM
answered on 23-May-26 08:01
Good morning Sir Sir, since it is not worth doing we ignored IRR for return %, even when the dividend is reinvested. It is ok to assume like that. could you please clarify a little bit Sir? [Video Time Stamp: 05:00]
latest answer
Yes All icai problems are solved using non irr method only
JANA KRISHNA K S
CA Final
★ 2K+
1
71
EAC - Page no 58, in p600+ volume 1
AFM
answered on 22-May-26 22:11
Hi sir Answer in your video is year 0, but year 1 is mentioned in your material [Video Time Stamp: 21:35]
latest answer
Changed in revised PDF uploaded in resources . Sorry for inconvenience
tamil Selvan
CA Final
★ 0
1
104
Expiration rate
AFM
answered on 22-May-26 19:51
Sir, it is mentioned in question that at expiration LIBOR is 1.25%, we have considered it as the 90 day LIBOR as on specified date i.e. on 90th day. What does expiration meant here? Is is not the end of specified period i.e. interest rate on 180th day?
latest answer
What we have done is correct only Rate on 90th day for a deposit from day 91-180 is 1.25 % On day 0 We agreed to place a deposit from Day 91-180 at 1.5% So we will get PV of differential interest as inflow on day 90
SANJITHA
CA Final
★ 1K+
1
106
Doubt
AFM
answered on 21-May-26 20:23
Sir video is cancelled with respect to difference between symetric triangle and wedge [Video Time Stamp: 04:54]
latest answer
In a triangle one line is flat or both lines are in opposite side. In case of a wedge both lines are moving in same direction
pavan kumar
CA Final
★ 3K+
1
89
doubt
AFM
answered on 21-May-26 20:10
Why falling wedge a bullish trend? [Video Time Stamp: 05:24]
latest answer
Because the The price movement is getting constrained and bottoms are going lower and so are the tops. It indicates that sellers are unable to push the price beyond a certain level and buyers are able to push them back. Secondly each successive drop is smaller than the previous top indicating It is reaching a support level and after that point there will be a breakout
pavan kumar
CA Final
★ 3K+
1
125
Exchange margin
AFM
answered on 21-May-26 12:04
1. Sir, whether the Sale at spot on 10/9 and 12/9 is made to another bank or customer? 2. If sale done to customer, why exchange margin is not applicable for spot sale on 10/9? 3. On selling spot at 12/9, Bank is selling $ and receiving ₹ and the customer in turn buy $, so the exchange margin should be added instead of reducing right? [Video Time Stamp: 21:01]
latest answer
1. ON 10th Sep /12th the buy / sale on spot is assumed to be made in interbank - whether the bank actually executed it with another customer or interbank is irrelevant 2. Exchange margin is on last cancellation as per fedai rules - pls check the table i shared when explaining this concept - it is not on all intermediate cancellations 3. on 12/9 bank is selling on spot in interbank market. when bank is selling, they will receive INR, always assume that when you look at things from customer side we get lower money on sales and pay higher money on purchases. Here since bank is now going to behave like customer and interbank will be like the main bank. Customer loses money on margin So when Bank sells USD they will receive less INR hence margin is reduced
SANJITHA
CA Final
★ 1K+
1
92
Illustration 20
AFM
answered on 20-May-26 22:04
Sir, regarding Part 3 of the question, while computing the opening NAV, my understanding is that we need to assume that only the investments are available at the opening stage and that they are valued at cost. Is my understanding correct?
latest answer
Yes
Mhd Mmp
CA Final
★ 740
2
76
doubt
AFM
answered on 20-May-26 17:11
sir why are we multiplying 1+x instead of x. [Video Time Stamp: 08:00]
latest answer
Thank you sir
pavan kumar
CA Final
★ 3K+
2
90