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AFM

answered on 06-Jul-26 13:58

Why are we reducing short-term debt for the computation of current liabilities? [Video Time Stamp: 02:37]

latest answer

Yes The question says change in wc is 25 If you treat at debt as part of wc then the amount of change in wc is not matching I explain in video that this is a CFA question and per USGAAP ST debt is excluded from CL

pavan kumar

pavan kumar

CA Final

3K+

3

101

Two stage model

AFM

answered on 06-Jul-26 09:39

Q3. In calculating value of D2 the formula is D1(1+g)^2... next step when substituting the values, D1 taken as 4 and not 4.8. Actually (D o) is 4... [Video Time Stamp: 05:48]

latest answer

ok

Meenal Asher

Meenal Asher

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4K+

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98

Illustration 54

AFM

answered on 06-Jul-26 09:42

Sir ,in the second part of question (effective yield calculation) we have got 7.92% as answer. Just to cross check, If we use this yield and calculate present value(i.e, 8,8,8,8 & 108 @ 7.92%) we get 100.32 as answer. But ideally the answer should be close to 101 right? So is it necessary to use interpolation and find the YTM at which NPV becomes 0. [Video Time Stamp: 19:12]

latest answer

No. the word effective yield does not mean YTM both are diff terms Effective yield is a back of the envelope computation to compare various bonds. It is just a term with a specific defined meaning, which has no other use anywhere else

Balavignesh

Balavignesh

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755

1

60

Illustration 33

AFM

answered on 04-Jul-26 16:40

Sir, why tax benefit of amortisation of (5000*30%=1500) is considered but actual benefit in amortisation(5000) is not considered? [Video Time Stamp: 13:48]

latest answer

Because amortisation or depreciation are non cash items and only cash flow that arises out of them is the tax benefit from writing them off in the P&L

Balavignesh

Balavignesh

CA Final

755

1

56

Illustration 30

AFM

answered on 04-Jul-26 09:23

Sir, in this question the 6-month forward premium is 1.66% and the interest rate differential is 2.91%. Since the interest rate differential is greater than the forward premium, should we conclude that the company should borrow in USD and invest in INR? Is my understanding correct? [Video Time Stamp: 03:12]

latest answer

Yes PGIDB Premium > Int Differential then borrow domestic

Vaikundaraja  A

Vaikundaraja A

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18K+

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62

Gain on contract

AFM

answered on 03-Jul-26 19:05

sir, How the gain on contract is computed in this problem?

latest answer

Thank you sir

Vijay Ramesh

Vijay Ramesh

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97

illustration 22

AFM

answered on 03-Jul-26 17:50

Dear sir, Here in this sum we are comparing the value of debenture(rs.116) and value of converted equity shares(rs.120) and say the result. But what if the investor decides to holds the debentures for 4 years and then to convert it into equity shares at rs.5 market price. in such case he may receive debenture interest for 4 years and then receive rs.100 value of equity shares. Is it logical to make permutations like this? [Video Time Stamp: 04:41]

latest answer

If u wait for maturity and market price falls to 3 then what can investor do. So the best course of action is if you get a reasonable equity share price, anytime today which is better than the market price of the bond. It is best to ahead and convert.

Balavignesh

Balavignesh

CA Final

755

1

113

Doubt

AFM

answered on 03-Jul-26 11:26

Why r-ke is taken in the denominator [Video Time Stamp: 06:32]

latest answer

R is ke Every wherever we have taken r- g, or ke-g

pavan kumar

pavan kumar

CA Final

3K+

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59

Doubt

AFM

answered on 03-Jul-26 11:27

Where does the dividend D0 come from in the formula, [Video Time Stamp: 06:04]

latest answer

Formula derivation is not part of the syllabus

pavan kumar

pavan kumar

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3K+

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61

Doubt

AFM

answered on 03-Jul-26 12:32

Why are we considering the area of the triangle? The area under growth and the time factor gives the price [Video Time Stamp: 04:42]

latest answer

Ok sir

pavan kumar

pavan kumar

CA Final

3K+

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55