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Repayment of Loan

AFM

answered on 18-Mar-25 13:24

Sir, can we make an assumption that out of 250 lakhs, 150 lakhs is funded by the govt (as given in question), so the outflow in year 0 will be 100 lakhs and in year 15 it will be 150*0.315, i.e., 47.25 lakhs. Is this appropriate?

latest answer

Okay sir understood, thank you.

Raviteja Kusumanchi

Raviteja Kusumanchi

Qualified CA

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280

Remitted by TT

AFM

answered on 18-Mar-25 09:36

Remitted by TT, means we shall have received na? then why we reduced from Nostro Account

latest answer

It means there was an outward remittance based on request of your customer

Hrishikesh Pradhan

Hrishikesh Pradhan

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237

Unhedged portion

AFM

answered on 18-Mar-25 11:34

In illustration 75, for unhedged portion we used forward rate of 0.9301 but here we are using spot, why ?

latest answer

Pls watch full video. I used forward rate only check minute 23 onwards

Hrishikesh Pradhan

Hrishikesh Pradhan

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289

Market Variance

AFM

answered on 18-Mar-25 14:43

Sir @30mins10secs you took Market Variance Of 18.52 Which you said as Actual Variance in the beginning of the video and also said Expected Market Variance as 36. Can you say why we are not considering the Expected Market Variance?

latest answer

In the previous question they have just given market variance, whereas in this question we have both market variance for a specific period (18.52), and LT Historical Mkt variance which is what is expected over a period of time (36%) Given that we are computing weights based on specific period performance we take market variance for that period only for computing weights in all our initial computations However when we project LT variance and LT returns i.e in a stead state for this portfolio, we consider market return and market variance of 8% & 36% ( last step) please dont spend time on this concept as this will not come in exam at all. Even if it comes, pls don't solve as it will take away too much of your time

Mohanbabu N

Mohanbabu N

CA Final

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288

Earnings growth from 3rd onwards is 10%

AFM

answered on 14-Mar-25 16:56

Hi Sir, If we compute P2 instead of P3 & discount to present value, is it incorrect way computation

latest answer

Mine is a serious response and I am not trying to offend u. Pls compute and check

priyadharshini priya

priyadharshini priya

CA Final

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341

Adv.Capital Budgeting Illustration 22

AFM

answered on 14-Mar-25 10:25

Sir...how can I get pv of cashflows at 2.7 years in the exam?

latest answer

Do it for full years and multiply by .7

Srikanth Srimath Tirumala Peddinti

Srikanth Srimath Tirumala Peddinti

CA Final

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244

Classes

AFM

answered on 14-Mar-25 16:57

Can i view classes in lap if i purchase

latest answer

Have activated pls check

Anjali Shajil

Anjali Shajil

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334

Conversion

AFM

answered on 13-Mar-25 13:11

When we are adding forward points, for USD INR forward we added 67.8 +0.21 however for USD/EUR we added 1.0775+0.004, which i disagree because they have said cents it means 0.4 na ?

latest answer

understood the answer sir

Hrishikesh Pradhan

Hrishikesh Pradhan

Qualified CA

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363

Bid/Ask

AFM

answered on 20-May-25 20:28

i did not understood the logic of taking ask rate in borrowing for CAD, what i was thinking was i am borrowing CAD, means selling USD, means bank buy USD, hence bid rate, what am i getting wrong

latest answer

Borrowing

Hrishikesh Pradhan

Hrishikesh Pradhan

Qualified CA

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3

381

Cost of funds

AFM

answered on 12-Mar-25 17:33

Sir, not understood the logic of calculating cost of funds on the upfront premium paid, this means we are paying interest on the amount which we have paid to the bank. Could you please clarify this concept with the help of an example.

latest answer

Cof premium

Hrishikesh Pradhan

Hrishikesh Pradhan

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346